Galaxia2002
Dagobah Resident
I was reading the Gospel of Thomas when saw this part:
It´s interesting why is John taken as a reference (as a higer reference seems to me in this case) what a human can become in this realm. I was reviewing "the true identity of Fulcanelli and the Da Vinci Code" but is not clear for me why leonardo would have hinted him as envious or ingrate. I noticed also analizing the three pictures below that Leonardo seems to make equal the hand and the cross in his picture of Saint John but then to compensate the hand absence in the second "madonna of the rocks" he puts the cross on John. The cross has the same function of the hand, is like a pointer too. That is to say the cross seems to be equal to ingratitude or the false way? was this a way that Leonardo had to indicate us the falsehood of the religions?
46. Jesus said, "From Adam to John the Baptist, among those born of women, no one is so much greater than John the Baptist that his eyes should not be averted.
But I have said that whoever among you becomes a child will recognize the (Father's) kingdom and will become greater than John."
It´s interesting why is John taken as a reference (as a higer reference seems to me in this case) what a human can become in this realm. I was reviewing "the true identity of Fulcanelli and the Da Vinci Code" but is not clear for me why leonardo would have hinted him as envious or ingrate. I noticed also analizing the three pictures below that Leonardo seems to make equal the hand and the cross in his picture of Saint John but then to compensate the hand absence in the second "madonna of the rocks" he puts the cross on John. The cross has the same function of the hand, is like a pointer too. That is to say the cross seems to be equal to ingratitude or the false way? was this a way that Leonardo had to indicate us the falsehood of the religions?